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| Dear Dr. Blizzard,
I have been trying to learn Hebrew through the use of home study programs. Does a person need to go to an accredited school to learn Hebrew properly or can a person do just as well with the home study courses? Thank You - posted: March 18 2004 | | Answer... |
| I have a difference of opinion regarding Dr. Blizzard’s statement that it does not matter which Bible translation is used, that all have good points as well as bad, and that one is as good as another. I do believe it matters. Though the King James Version does have mistakes in translation, it seems to me that it is the best one as the King James translators took such slavish pains to get things right, word-for-word; whereas, more modern versions are paraphrases, or they just “did the best they could” with whatever text was used. In the New International Version, references to the BLOOD, THE DEITY, THE LORDSHIP AND MESSIAHSHIP of Jesus Christ is either glossed over or deleted outright. It seem to me that there is a greater agenda at work, and it is a creeping apostasy meant to water down the power of God.
In the New International Version, Genesis 7:1, God tells Noah to “come into the ark.” In the same passage, it says: The Lord then said to Noah, “Go into the ark…” It seems to me that this casts a whole different light on the interpretation of this scripture. To “come” would say that God is already “in” the ark, representative of the salvation that God offers to us in Christ, including Noah. To say “Go” would seem to mean that God is somewhere outside of the ark and is sending Noah somewhere apart from God and that He is not “in” the ark offering salvation.
Another is Luke 2:33, which reads in the King James, “And Joseph and his mother marveled…” The New International reads, “The child’s father and mother marveled at what was said about him.” This points out to the reader that Joseph was the father of Jesus, which he is not. God is His Father. Another example is Colossians 1:14, which says, “In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins.” The New International reads. “In whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.” The NIV completely removes the reference to the Blood of Jesus. This is blasphemous.
In Matthew 8:2, King James, “And, behold, there came a leper and worshipped him…” The NIV says, “A man with leprosy came and knelt before him…” Why have the translators of the NIV not included the word “worship” in this verse?
There has been gross corruption in some of the newer translations, and one is not just as good as the others. If a version of the Bible does not fully acknowledge the Lordship of Christ, the blood of Christ and the deity of Christ, then it is a corrupt text and must be rejected. Can you comment upon this observation, please? Charlene Sanders
- posted: March 14 2004 | | Answer... |
| Thank you for posting this informative study. When reading the paragraph about the evening and the morning being one day, I thought about Gen. 2:4 where it says that a man will cleave to his wife and they shall be one flesh. We understand what a day is and how an evening and a morning are parts of a day....but what really is meant by 'one flesh'? The New Brown-Driver-Briggs-Gesenius Hebrew-Aramaic lexicon says this application of the word 'flesh' means 'flesh for kindred, blood relations'. Can you explain this further? It seems to imply that after marriage God views man and wife as one blood, or related by blood. I am quick to admit that I have no training in the Hebrew language! I have one other question regarding this article. In paragraph 7, it's written that the spirit and the flesh will never be separated, but both are made for eternity. Can you explain this a bit more? I understand the eternity part but I'm not sure what is meant by the spirit and the flesh will never be separated. When a body dies, the spirit departs or separates from it, doesn't it? Thank you for your ministry.....your teachings are a blessing to me. - posted: February 25 2004 | | Answer... |
| Some years ago I read an article in the Yavo Digest entitled II Corinthians 4:4 by Peter Michas that was a blessing to me and revolutionized my thinking. And now once again reading in your article that Satan or the devil isn't the god of anything provided me an opportunity to ask you a question. In Thayer's Greek-English lexicon for the word 'god' (#2316, page 288)used in II Cor. 4:4, it says this usage is 'of the devil'; and for the word 'world' (#165, page 19) used in II Cor. 4:4, it's written that the devil rules the thoughts and deeds of the men of this age. Perhaps Thayer's isn't the best lexicon I can use, but I have no training in the Greek language so I'm limited as to what resources I can use. With that in mind, is there a particular Greek-English lexicon you could recommend, if not Thayer's? Thank you for your ministry. - posted: February 25 2004 | | Answer... |
| Dear Dr. Blizzard Iam doing a study on Cain and Abel on why God had respect unto Abel offering and not Cain.Genesis 4:2-8 and Hebrew 11:4. thank you for your responds.
JLM - posted: February 09 2004 | | Answer... |
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