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| "Once saved, always saved"
Where is that in the Bible?
Thanks, John
- posted: October 14 2009 | | Answer... |
| Dear Dr. Blizzard, I was having a discussion with a friend about there being an earlier hebrew gospel.and in our discussion we raised some questions about that premise and also the widespread use of the septuagint. How deep was the influence of the Greek Septuagint in the first century. Obviously it was quoted by the gospel writers? For instance was the teaching of jesus ever done in the greek language? Did the pharisee's teach in the Greek language ever? Would there ever have been a Greek Torah scroll?? What was used in the synagogue and rabbinic academies? Another question that came up was if Luke was a Greek trying to reach more gentiles why would he have written a gospel in Hebrew which was not the world language? My friend was also mentioning that maybe Edersheim had said that the Hebrew scrolls would have been too expensive and being written in greek made them much more accessible to the people. Any help that you can give would be greatly appreciated. Thanks Mark
- posted: October 14 2009 | | Answer... |
| I just have a quick question. What is the difference between a Bible "translation" and a Bible "version". I have read material before that said a "version" is different from a "translation" due to the fact that much of a "version's" text comes from an older Bible "translation". For example, how the King James Version has much of its text based on the Latin Vulgate, not always on the oldest or most reliable Heb, Aram and Gre texts of the Bible.
At any rate, I would appreciate your thoughts on this.
Thanks,
Dwayne
- posted: October 21 2008 | | Answer... |
| I have gone to church and worshiped for most of my life even though I can put more effort into studying the bible. I am trying to grow my relationship with the Lord and I am going through a divorce and I was speaking with someone and for the first time in my life I hear that you are not supposed to remarry after divorcing unless your spouse passes away. I started looking up scriptures and made some phone calls but am trying to do some extensive research. My thought was if there was adultery involved then it was ok to remarry. Is it ok to remarry?
Chris, - posted: October 21 2008 | | Answer... |
| Shalom,
My question pertains to Acts 15 and verse 21 in particular. How can we conclude the Council decision was that it is optional for Gentiles to observe Torah with the following as evidence? Would it not be more in-line that they were loosening a burdensome yoke for babes in Messiah?
I believe that a pretext is brought to the text which has caused a contradiction to both Messiah's warning (Mt.5:17-19) and the New Covenant stipulations (Jer.31:31-33) of our Heavenly Father.
The verse (Acts 15:21) contains a very important conjunction that never gets commented on except in analytical commentaries on the Greek text itself: The conjunction "GAR" or the English "FOR/BECAUSE".
According to the Louw-Nida Greek-English Lexicon (LN 89.23) this Greek conjunction, "GAR", is a "MARKER for showing a cause or reason for something They say "Because" would be better for the layman to follow than "For". Many more examples abound that the Greek GAR is not a negative but a strengthening of what precede it. One out of many examples, such as An Intermediate Greek-Lexicon which states:
"I. ARGUMENTATIVE, to introduce the reason for a statement, which usually precedes — when it precedes the statement
Liddell, H. (1996). A lexicon: Abridged from Liddell and Scott's Greek-English lexicon (160). Oak Harbor, WA: Logos Research Systems, Inc.
So how can we conclude that torah observance is optional when the "reason" for the Council's decision was to LIGHTEN THE LOAD/YOKE...because...
"Because (gar)" Moshe is preached every Shabbat in synagogue. Their conclusion was not "No" but in fact they lightened the load to "essentials" from the Torah!. I can't see how it is optional to "Honor your father and mother (Eph.6:2) just because it wasn't part of the Apostolic Dogma. Especially when Paul says it's a commandment of Torah (Eph. 6:2).
The commandment to Honor parents is not found in Apostolic Council's decrees but Paul makes it clear this is not "optional" but obligatory, i.e., "a commandment with a promise....".
Furthermore, surely the Council recalled the Messiah's warning (Mt.5:17-19) and decided to give new converts a lighter load(Mt.11:29) and did not seek to contradict Messiah by "loosening(λύσω)" his torah(V.19).
It appears from the whole of the N.T., the Gentiles are actually encourage to grow in their practice of torah but not TO BE SAVE but because they ARE SAVED. Again, it's hard to believe the Apostles condoned the Gentiles ongoing state of infancy. If so, there are many commandments not included that would be disastrous if left as "optional" to any Ecclesia.
- posted: October 21 2008 | | Answer... |
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