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| 1) We, as Messianic Jews, agree that authentic first century (and current) Jewish theology rejects popular Christian notions of hell, Satan, and other
forms of dualism that have their roots in paganism and typify the spiritual neophyte. Can you explain the origins of non-Jewish theology as it appears in ‘New’ Testament writings and/or do you have prepared lessons that deal with each instance of such occurrences?
2) Is there evidence that translators and transcribers added to or altered the original text and if so, where and why?
3) Where in scripture does man first reject the revelation that God resides within and does this rejection subsequently result in the blood covenant?
Thank you, John ad Malka - posted: June 13 2007 | | Answer... |
| Hi Dr. Blizzard,
My instructor has the view that the book of James in the NT was named so by the translators of the Authorized Bible in honor of King James who organized the teams of scholarly translators. It is his view that before this time the book was named Ya-a-kov in Hebrew, or Jacob in English. I have not been able to find any information on this. Can you enlighten me?
Thanks,
David
- posted: April 30 2007 | | Answer... |
| Hello Dr. Blizzard:
In 2 Peter 2:4 what is the reference for the angels in Peter's statement?
"For if God did not spare the angels when they sinned, but sent them to hell..."
Thanks,
Bob L. - posted: April 30 2007 | | Answer... |
| What is your opinion of preterism? - posted: April 11 2007 | | Answer... |
| Dear Dr. Blizzard,
I want to know if the scripture verse Hebrews 6:4-6, refers to only the Christian Jews since it was written to the Hebrews, or if it applies to all Christians. My Bible teacher of 60 yrs. told me it is only for the Christian Jews. Is then the whole book of Hebrews only for the Christian Jews??? Your speedy reply is greatly
appreciated. Thank you.
In Yeshua's hand. Linda Tropean
- posted: January 30 2007 | | Answer... |
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