How do you compare Matthew 5:17, where Yeshua states that He has not come to destroy the law, but to fill it up and Ephesians 2:15-16 --- [15] Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; [16] And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby: He is not talking about abolishing the Law here, but how does it compare with Matthew?
Richard |
Dear Richard,
Your question is really not that difficult.
First of all, you have to ask the question to whom is the author writing? In the first instance, (Matthew 5:17) the author is writing to the Jews. In this passage, Yeshua says "do not think that I am come to violate the Torah or the words of the prophets. I did not come to violate but to fulfill."
The word "destroy" is not a good translation of the Hebrew word used in this text. But, the question is, how does one violate or destroy the law? ... By misinterpreting it.
This passage should be correctly understood as, "I did not come to misinterpret the law, but to correctly interpret it and my regard and respect for the law is so great that not one Yud (the smallest letter of the Hebrew alphabet) nor one thorn (the decorative marks on some of the Hebrew letters) shall pass away until I cause it all to be correctly interpreted or to stand upright."
In Ephesians 2:15, Paul is writing to non-Jews who he describes in verse 15 as those who were ones afar off but are now brought near by the blood of the Messiah who has broken down the wall of separation even the law of the ordinances of Judaism that He may make of the two, Gentiles and Jews, one new man. He is not talking about the abolition of Jewish law, but that those who are non-Jews are not under the law or ordinances but through the faith of Yeshua have full access unto the kingdom and serve therein as brothers.
Roy Blizzard
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